The nurse needs to instruct the client to take the antibiotics at least 2 hours before or2 hours after taking the antacids.
This is because the antacids can intrude with the immersion of the fluoroquinolone antibiotic. Fluoroquinolones are bactericidal antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication. still, the antacids may beget the antibiotic to be less effective in killing the bacteria, as the antacids can reduce the series of antibiotic.
It is suitable to enter the bloodstream. likewise, taking antacids at the same time as the antibiotic can also increase the threat of side goods, similar as diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. For this reason, it's important to take the antibiotic at least two hours ahead or two hours after taking an antacid .
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an older adult client is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mm hg during a work-site health screening. what should the nurse do?
The nurse do advise the customer to get their blood pressure tested again in two weeks.
What brings blood pressure down?People with hypertension can decrease their blood pressure to such a healthy level by engaging in regular exercise. Aerobic exercise, such as walking, jogging, cycling, swimming, or dancing, can lower blood pressure. Another choice is high-intensity interval training.
Does sugar increase blood pressure?Consuming too much sugar might prevent blood arteries from producing enough nitric oxide (NO). Normally, nitric oxide aids in dilation (expanding of the blood vessels). Lack of NO can cause vasoconstriction, which narrows the blood vessels and raises blood pressure.
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1st political science book ever written
Purpose: to highlight Socrates' contention that KNOWLEDGE is needed in order to understand the truth: "highest form of happiness is attained when we nurture the human soul by pursuing justice rather than self interest
-3 communities: the craftspeople, the auxiliaries, & the guardians
-3 parts of human soul: appetite, spirit, & the rational
Reason, emotions, and appetites are the three components of the human soul. The guardians are comparable to the soul, or the reasoning principle of the soul.
What does Socrates think the point of philosophy is?The philosophy of Socrates looks at how we ought to live. This prompted him to have conversations about numerous virtues, like prudence, justice, medicine , piety, and so forth. Socrates believed that his purpose was to dispel myths.
What is Socrates' viewpoint on knowledge?Socrates thinks that only somebody who is "really smart" would be able to know these fundamental definitions and give such knowledgeable responses. But alas, he laments, only the gods possess such definitional wisdom. Only "human understanding, which is of very little or no worth" (apology) is available to us mortals.
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when does absorption begin? group of answer choices immediately after eating at least five hours after eating about 12 hours after eating within three to four hours after eating within one hour of eating
The correct option is A; Within three to four hours after eating , Around 3-6 hours after eating, the absorption process begins. "Nutrients are absorbed as food is broken down," McLeod continued.
"The bulk of nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine, where they are subsequently carried into the bloodstream."
It takes roughly six to eight hours for food to move through your stomach and small intestine after you eat. Food next reaches your large intestine (colon) for additional digestion, water absorption, and, lastly, undigested food excretion.
The small intestine collects the majority of nutrients from meals, and your circulatory system transports them to various regions of your body for storage or utilization. Special cells aid in the passage of nutrients from the gut lining into the circulation.
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Full Question
When does absorption begin?
Select one:
a. Within three to four hours after eating
b. At least five hours after eating
c. Within one hour of eating
d. About 12 hours after eating
e. Immediately after eating
a postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. the patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 meq/l (127 mmol/l). which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
The right response is option A, which calls for infusing 5% dextrose in water at a rate of 125 mL/hr. This is necessary since the patient's stomach suction has been robbing them of electrolyte, thus the IV solution should also contain electrolyte replenishment.
Typically, this patient would require the use of solutions such as lactated Ringer's solution. For a postoperative patient with stomach suction, the other instructions are suitable. Ringer's lactate solution, also known as lactated Ringer's solution, is a balanced or buffered isotonic crystalloid fluid that is used to restore lost fluid. However, Ringer's lactate is a superb fluid for vigorous fluid replacement in many clinical circumstances, including sepsis and severe pancreatitis. Ringer's lactate is mostly utilized in high volume resuscitation after blood loss or burn injuries. A single-dose bottle of dextrose and sodium chloride injection is a sterile, nonpyrogenic solution for fluid, electrolyte, and caloric replacement during intravenous delivery.
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The complete question is:
A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
which term best describes viewing medical treatment as an active intervention to produce a counteracting reaction in an attempt to neutralize the effects of disease?
The term used to describe this type of medical treatment is counteractive intervention therefore the correct option is A.
This type of intervention is used to laboriously offset the goods of a complaint or illness. It works by using specifics or other treatments that have the contrary effect of the complaint or illness. For illustration, if a case has an infection, the curative intervention may be to use an antibiotic to fight the infection.
Or, if a case has a heart condition, the curative intervention may be to use specifics to regulate the heart rate and blood pressure. Curative interventions can also include life changes, similar as diet and exercise, to help offset the goods of a complaint or illness. Eventually, curative interventions are used to reduce the inflexibility of a complaint or illness.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
which term best describes viewing medical treatment as an active intervention to produce a counteracting reaction in an attempt to neutralize the effects of disease?
a. counteractive intervention
b.imperial intervention
c. none
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the nurse is chaning a film dressing over a wound that is showing a large amount of drainage. how should the nurse proceed
A wound with significant drainage is being changed by the nurse with a film dressing. For this wound, the nurse ought to use a different kind of dressing.
Which patient should the nurse take into account when applying a clear film for wound care?They work well on wounds that have a lot of exudate. Oxygen can be exchanged between the environment and the wound thanks to transparent coatings. For small, partially-thickened wounds with little drainage, they work well.
Which of the following dressings can be applied to infected wounds and is used to absorb extensive drainage that requires additional dressing to cover?Alginate dressings are appropriate for wounds with moderate to high drainage but are not advised for dry wounds, wounds with third-degree burns, or severe wounds with exposed bone.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
The nurse is changing a film dressing over a wound that is showing a large amount of drainage. How should the nurse proceed?
a. Apply a film dressing after culturing the wound.
b. Apply a film dressing after cleansing the area.
c. Choose another type of dressing for this wound.
d. Keep the wound open to air.
in light of the large number of gallbladder clients recently admitted to the unit, a nurse is searching pubmed for literature relating to cholecystitis, cholecystectomy, cholelithiasis, and cholecystography. which term(s) should the nurse enter into the search field?
To find literature relating to cholecystitis, cholecystectomy, cholelithiasis, and cholecystography, the nurse should enter the word “chole” into the search field. The term "chole" is a shortened version of the term "cholecystitis," which is an inflammation of the gallbladder.
Cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder, a small, pear-shaped organ located in the upper right abdomen that stores and releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of fats. Cholecystitis can be acute or chronic and can be caused by a variety of factors, including the formation of gallstones in the gallbladder, which can obstruct the flow of bile and cause inflammation. Symptoms of cholecystitis can include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, and jaundice. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to clear the infection and surgery to remove the gallbladder (cholecystectomy).
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
in light of the large number of gallbladder clients recently admitted to the unit, a nurse is searching pubmed for literature relating to cholecystitis, cholecystectomy, cholelithiasis, and cholecystography. which term(s) should the nurse enter into the search field?
a. Chole
B. Loche
C. Celho
D. Choel
when a parent asks about a sudden issue with bedwetting, which would the nurse document in the child's health record?
It's crucial for the nurse to note any sudden problems with bedwetting in the child's health record when a parent reports them.
Which would the nurse document in the child's health record?The following details ought to be provided: The report's date and time allow you to create a timeline and keep track of any changes that occur over time. The nurse should record the frequency, seriousness, and any accompanying symptoms, such as pain or discomfort, related to the bedwetting. The nurse should record any prior instances of bedwetting as well as if this is a new problem or a repeat. Relevant medical history: It is important to record any pertinent medical information, such as a history of urinary tract infections or constipation. Parents' worries: The nurse needs to write down the parents' worries and any inquiries they may have.
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It's crucial for the nurse to note any sudden problems with bedwetting in the child's health record when a parent reports them.
Which would the nurse document in the child's health record?
The following details ought to be provided: The report's date and time allow you to create a timeline and keep track of any changes that occur over time. The nurse should record the frequency, seriousness, and any accompanying symptoms, such as pain or discomfort, related to the bedwetting.
The nurse should record any prior instances of bedwetting as well as if this is a new problem or a repeat. Relevant medical history: It is important to record any pertinent medical information, such as a history of urinary tract infections or constipation. Parents' worries: The nurse needs to write down the parents' worries and any inquiries they may have.
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to prevent paresthesia when administering an ia block the clinician should group of answer choices consider the risks verses the benefits of using a 0.5% solution. consider the risks verses the benefits of using a 2% solution. consider the risks verses the benefits of using a 3% solution. consider the risks verses the benefits of using a 4% solution.
To prevent paresthesia when administering an IA blick the clinician should consider the risks versus the benefits of using a 4% solution.
Paresthesia is a sensation of burning or tingling that frequently affects the hands, arms, legs, or feet but can also occur in other parts of the body. Itching, skin crawling, or tingling is terms used to describe the abrupt onset, which is usually harmless. Most people have experienced brief paresthesia, sometimes known as "needles," at some point in their lives after sitting with their legs crossed or sleeping with an arm under their head. When a nerve is subjected to sustained pressure, it happens. When the pressure is relaxed, the sensation quickly goes away. Chronic paresthesia is typically an indication of serious nerve damage or neurological disorder.
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four newborns were admitted into the neonatal nursery 1 hours ago. they are all sleeping under radiant warmers. which of the babies should the nurse ask the neonatologist to evaluate?
The babies should the nurse ask the neonatologist to evaluate The neonate with nasal flaring. if newborns admitted into the neonatal nursery 1 hours ago.
Who is a neonatologist?Diagnose and treat neonatal diseases such as respiratory diseases, infections, and birth defects. Coordinate care and medical care for newborns born prematurely, seriously ill, or requiring surgery.
Is a neonatologist a pediatrician?A neonatologist is a pediatrician of newborns with injuries or medical conditions that require special care. Neonatologists start out as pediatricians but then receive specialized training in neonatology. Neonatologists focus only on newborns whose lives are at risk due to illness or birth defects.
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a patient in the emergency room (er) has been prescribed prochlorperazine for nausea. by which mechanism of action does this medication work?
Prochlorperazine works by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
Prochlorperazine is a drug that is primarily used to treat nausea, migraines, schizophrenia, psychosis, dan anxiety. It can be taken by mouth, by injection into a vein or a muscle, or even rectally. The usage of prochlorperazine may induce blurry vision, sleepiness, low blood pressure, and dizziness.
Prochlorperazine works to exert its antipsychotic effects by blocking the dopamine receptor in the central nervous system/chemoreceptor trigger zone. It is analogous to chlorpromazine since both of them antagonize dopaminergic D2 receptors. The D2 blockade leads to antipsychotic, antiemetic, and other effects.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
A patient in the emergency room (ER) has been prescribed prochlorperazine for nausea. By which mechanism of action does this medication work?
1. Blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
2. Blocking histamine1 receptors in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
3. Blocking serotonin on vagal nerve terminals
4. Stimulating gastric emptying and peristalsis
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in the supine patient, in what anatomic location does free pelvic fluid tend to most readily collect? group of answer choices anterior cul-de-sac
The anatomic position where the pelvic fluid are found is cul-de-sac n the supine patient.
The uterus may be surrounded by two significant anatomic position. The posterior cul-de-sac, also known as the Douglas pouch or the rectouterine pouch, is situated between the uterus and the rectosigmoid colon. The posterior cul-de-sac is the most reliant intraperitoneal structure in the pelvis in the supine patient. Pelvic ultrasonography frequently shows free pelvic fluid (both normal and pathologic) accumulating in the posterior cul-de-sac. The vesicouterine pouch (or anterior cul-de-sac) is positioned anterior to the uterus.
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the nurse is planning on doing a nursing/health history on a new client by performing an interview. which elements are considered phases of the nursing interview? select all that apply.
The elements which are are considered as phases of the nursing interview are assessment, introduction, planning, and evaluation.
The nurse will review any subjective and objective information gathered from the patient's history during the assessment phase. Objective data examples include trends in oxygen saturation from the chart or proof that the patient's oxygen litre flow was increased multiple times overnight.
The process evaluation is the last step in the nursing process. It occurs after the interventions to determine whether the objectives were achieved. The nurse will decide how to assess the efficacy of the objectives and treatments during the evaluation. Trending the patient's oxygen saturation levels over the course of the shift would be one evaluation method for a patient with respiratory problems.
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the nurse is planning on doing a nursing/health history on a new client by performing an interview. which elements are considered phases of the nursing interview? select all that apply.
Assessment
Planning
Introduction
Termination
Evaluation.
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a middle-aged client is to receive tetracycline for treatment of h. pylori infection, as well as continue with digoxin for a history of heart disease. the nurse will be prepared to monitor the client for which potential condition?
Nurses will be prepared to monitor clients taking digoxin and tetracyclines for potential conditions of increased heart rhythm.
What is digoxin?Digoxin is a drug to treat heart rhythm disturbances (arrhythmias). In addition, this drug can also be used to treat heart failure. Digoxin is available in tablet and injection forms.
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside drug that works by affecting several types of minerals, namely sodium, and potassium in heart cells. This way of working will reduce the heart's workload, help return the heart rhythm to normal and stable, and strengthen the heartbeat. So a potential condition that needs attention is an increase in heart rate rhythm.
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Bismuth subSalicyalte
Trade
Dosage
Generic
Bismuth subsalicylate is a medicine which is used widely to treat diarrhea, relieve stomach ache, upset stomach, heart burn, etc.
What is Bismuth subsalicylate?Bismuth subsalicylate is used widely to treat diarrhea in adults and teenagers. Bismuth subsalicylate is sold generically as pink bismuth and under the brand names such as Pepto-Bismol and BisBacter. It is an antacid medication which is used to treat temporary discomforts of the stomach and the gastrointestinal tract, such as nausea, heartburn, indigestion, upset stomach, and diarrhea.
Dosage to be taken as per the guidelines for adults are 2 tablets of 262 mg/tab or 30 ml of regular strength orally every ½-1 hour as needed and the maximum daily dose can be 8 regular-strength doses or 4 extra-strength doses
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which finding for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy and lung biopsy would be most important to report to the health care provider ?
The findings of a client who has just done a bronchoscopy and lung biopsy that is important to report to the health care provider are the absence of cough and gag reflexes.
After bronchoscopy and lung biopsy, a person should still have their gag reflexes and still be able to cough. The absence of these abilities indicates that the client doesn't have any protective airway reflexes, which makes them at risk of aspiration.
Pulmonary aspiration is where vomit, saliva, liquids, and food are breathed into the airways. It may lead to pneumonia or even death by suffocation. It can be caused by a large intake of alcohol, being less aware because of medication, or surgery.
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Scientists are continuously advancing our understanding of the importance of the human gut microbiome in health and disease. Which of the following is not a challenge associated with studying the human microbiome?A. The gut environment is predominantly anaerobic, and most of its microorganisms cannot be cultured in the lab.B. It is difficult to investigate microbial biofilms in vitro, or outside of the host.C. The microbiomes of healthy individuals are incredibly diverse.D. Genomic sequencing of the gut microbiome cannot be completed if the microorganisms cannot be cultured in the lab.
It is not difficult to examine the human microbiome because healthy people have very diverse microbiomes.
What is accurate regarding the interaction between the human gut microbiome and humans?In their guts at birth, humans have the fewest distinct microbe species; by the time they reach adulthood, they have the highest diversity of distinct species. When a person is born, a same type and quantity of microbe species are present in your gut as when they die.
Why is the human gut microbiota vital for health?In a healthy state, your gut microbiota perform a wide range of beneficial tasks, including energy recovery through the metabolism of nondigestible dietary components, host defense against pathogenic invasion, and immune system modulation.
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you are teaching a patient how to administer clonidine (catapres) using the transdermal patch system. how often do you teach the patient to change the patch?
When you teaching a patient how to administer the clonidine using the transdermal patch system. It is important to explain to the case that the patch should be changed every seven days.
The seven- day interval provides the case with a harmonious release of the drug from the patch, thus furnishing the case with a steady cure of the drug. Prior to changing the patch, the case should remove the old patch and dispose of it duly.
When applying the new patch, the case should insure that the patch is placed on an area of the skin that's clean, dry, and free of canvases , maquillages, and poultices. The case should also make sure to press the patch forcefully into place with their fritters.
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the nurse is providing care to a patient who is diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. the patient is lying in the supine position with noisy wet respirations noted and is not breathing well. the patient has a living will which designates the implementation of comfort measures. which action by the nurse is appropriate? 1) withhold all care until the patient dies. 2) provide the patient with pain medication as ordered. 3) ask the family what they want to be done for the patient. 4) reposition the patient to a lateral position, with the head elevated as tolerated.
The correct action for the nurse to assist the patient's breathing with a diagnosis of terminal lung cancer is 4) reposition the patient to a lateral position, with the head elevated as tolerated.
What is lung cancer?Lung cancer is cancer that forms in the lungs. Although it often occurs in smokers, lung cancer can also occur in non-smokers. In non-smokers, lung cancer occurs due to frequent exposure to cigarette smoke from other people (passive smokers) or exposure to chemicals in the work environment.
Lung cancer often causes no symptoms in its early stages. New symptoms appear when the cancer is large enough or has spread to surrounding tissues and organs. Some of the symptoms that lung cancer sufferers can feel are chronic coughing, shortness of breath, coughing up blood, and chest pain.
If someone has been diagnosed with lung cancer and has difficulty breathing, it can be done by changing the patient's position to the lateral position, with the head elevated according to tolerance.
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a client presents to the health care provider's office with a skin infection on the forearm. the infection is resistant to over-the-counter antibiotics. after receiving the culture and sensitivity results, the provider orders tigecycline. the nurse knows that this client has what illness?
After receiving the culture and sensitivity results, the nurse knows that his client has Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The order for tigecycline suggests that the culture and sensitivity results showed that the infection may be resistant to other antibiotics, and tigecycline is being used as a treatment option
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of staph bacteria that is resistant to several antibiotics, including methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics. It is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, such as boils, impetigo, and cellulitis. MRSA can also cause serious infections in the bloodstream, lungs, bones, and joints. MRSA is spread through skin-to-skin contact or by touching contaminated surfaces, and it can be especially dangerous for people with weakened immune systems, such as the elderly, people with chronic illnesses, and hospitalized patients.
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a client needs a high-risk surgical procedure. according to the leapfrog group, the client should choose which hospital for care during this procedure?
If a client needs a high-risk surgical procedure, the Leapfrog Group recommends that they choose a hospital with an "A" grade for safety.
The Leapfrog Group is a nonprofit organization that evaluates and reports on the safety and quality of healthcare facilities across the United States. They have developed a Hospital Safety Grade system that assigns grades to hospitals based on their performance in preventing medical errors, injuries, accidents, and infections.
Hospitals with an "A" grade have demonstrated a commitment to patient safety and quality improvement, and have lower rates of adverse events such as infections and medical errors.
Clients can use the Leapfrog Group's Hospital Safety Grade system to research hospitals in their area and make informed decisions about where to receive care. The Leapfrog Group's Hospital Safety Grades are updated twice per year and are based on a comprehensive review of publicly available data sources, including the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
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how would the nurse respond to the parents of an infant who report giving their infant some whiskey when the baby is colicky?
Examining cultural or familial customs might reveal information about a behavior . A clear inquiry that only considers one part of the issue and may not encourage additional investigation is if the whiskey soothes the baby.
Why is it called nurse?The Latin phrase nutire, meaning means to breastfeed, is where the word nurse first appeared. This is due to the fact that the term was originally primarily used to describe a wet-nurse and did not change to refer to someone who provides medical treatment until the late sixteenth century.
Could a nurse be timid?In conclusion, it is quite possible to work as a nurse and yet remain shy. Your shyness will eventually go, and you'll start to feel lot more at ease. You'll experience it similarly to way you do today, in hs (minus public speaking projects).
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the nurse is preparing to administer ear drops to a 2-year-old client. the nurse would pull the pinna in which direction?
Answer:
For children under 3: Hold ear lobe and gently pull down and back. For children 3 and over: Hold upper part of ear and gently pull up and back. 2. Place the correct number of drops into the ear canal so they will roll into the ear along the side of the ear canal.
the nurse knows the client on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (capd) understands his treatment when the client states:
Sending fluid to the lab for culture is the best first nursing step; cloudy diasylate denotes infection (peritonitis). To identify the microorganisms present, a cultured of the fluid should be performed.
What is the purpose of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis?Normally, our kidneys filter the blood, removing waste materials and extra fluid. If your kidneys have failed, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) can replace your kidney function utilising the membrane encasing your internal organs (the peritoneum).
What distinguishes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis from that?Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD), on the other hand, is a general term used to describe all variants of PD that use a mechanical device to help in the delivery and drainage of dialysate. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) includes conducting the PD exchanges manually.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and has a new prescription for sacubitril/valsartan. which client information is most important to discuss with the health care provider before administration of the medication?
Answer: Wouldn't it be patient history?
Explanation:
I say this because if they have another illness/factor and/or prescription that can combat sacubitril/valsartan then more health issues can arise, no? That's just my take on it
the nurse is caring for a patient who recently had unprotected sex with a partner who has hiv. which response by the nurse is best? group of answer choices
The best response by nurse who is caring for a patient who recently had unprotected sex with a partner who has HIV is option c. "Highly active antiretroviral therapy has been shown effective in slowing the disease process."
HIV weakens the immune system and impairs the body's capacity to fend against illness and infection. Contact with contaminated blood, semen, or vaginal secretions can transfer HIV.
Highly active antiretroviral therapy prevents the virus from replicating inside the body. This may decrease the harm that HIV does to the immune system and delay the onset of AIDS. Additionally, it might help stop the spread of HIV to others, notably from mother to child during childbirth.
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The nurse caring for a patient who recently had unprotected sex with a partner who has HIV. Which response by the nurse is best? group of answer choices.
a. "You should have your blood drawn todays to see if you were infected"
b. "I you have the virus, you will have flu-like symptoms in 6 months"
c. "Highly active antiretroviral therapy has been shown effective in slowing the disease process"
d. "I will set you up with a support group to help you cope with dying within the next 10 years"
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patient receiving total parenternal nutrition (TPN) via peripherallu inserted central cetheter line (PICC) the arm seemed swollen above PICC insertion site, which action should the nurse do first? 1. measure the circumference of both upper arms
2. notify the provider who inserted the PICC line
3. remove the PICC line
4. apply cold pack to clients upper arm
the first action is the measure arm and compare to circumference of other arm. if swollen, notify the provider. swelling could indicate formation of clot above site
The nurse first alerts the healthcare professional who installed the PICC line after seeing the patient's arm appeared enlarged above the PICC insertion site while the patient was receiving total supportive care (TPN).
What will the nurse perform first in order to get the PICC in?Your arm is cleaned by the nurse, who then covers it in a sterile towel to stop infection. Your arm is tourniquetted by the nurse. You are given numbing medication. The nurse inserts the introducer needle, the PICC line, and a tiny needle into a vein close to your heart.
What ought to the nurse accomplish first in order to get ready for the PICC?Assessing the client should be the nurse's initial step in the nursing process. The nurse should take the arm's circumference and compare it to the size of the opposite arm. The nurse needs to let the doctor who put in the PICC line know if indeed the arm is swelling.
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the nurse reviews the medical record of a client with terminal cancer and notes the presence of a do-not-resuscitate (dnr ) order the order was written with the client's admission orders . the nurse recalls that which factor is relevant to the legal aspects of the dnr order ?
The nurse recalls that the policies of the agency establish the status of the DNR orders and is relevant to the legal aspects of the DNR order, thus the correct option is A.
When a nurse examines a client's medical file who has terminal cancer, she finds a do not resuscitate order. Written inside the order were the customers' admittance requests. If a person's heart stops beating, a do-not-resuscitate or DNR order instructs medical personnel not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation CPR or defibrillation. Only in cases where these precautions are unlikely to save a dying person's life or extend meaningful life is this paper published. In general, CPR is not very likely to be successful at the last stage of a terminal illness.
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The complete question is:
The nurse reviews the medical record of a client with terminal cancer and notes the presence of a do not resuscitate order. The order was written with the clients admission orders. The nurse recalls that which factor is relevant to the legal aspects of the DNR order?
A. The policies of the agency establish the status of the DNR orders.
B. The age of the client is a primary factor in the decision not to resuscitate.
C. Decisions regarding resuscitation reside with the clients primary healthcare provider.
D. Once a DNR order is signed, it remains in force for the entire hospitalization
a nurse is administering ciprofloxacin iv. what should the nurse assess prior to administering the medication?
A nurse should evaluate the patient's vital signs, allergies and adverse reactions, medication history, and hydration status prior to giving ciprofloxacin intravenously (IV).
What is the purpose of intravenous ciprofloxacin?Injections of ciprofloxacin are prescribed to cure bacterial infections in so many different body locations. Infection from anthrax brought on by inhalation exposure is also treated with it. Additionally, this medication is used to treat & cure plagues (include pneumonic & septicemic plague).
Is the antibiotic ciprofloxacin effective?Ciprofloxacin is a potent antibiotic that effectively treats a wide range of diseases. However, it shouldn't be administered to children under the age of 18 and should only be used in adults to treat infections that are resistant to other antibiotics. Tendon rupture and tendonitis are serious adverse consequences.
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A psychologist administers a self-report test to a female college student . The test contains a list of questions, each asking her to decide which of two statements better describes her. This test is a(n) _____ test.
a. projective c. introjective
b. subjective d. objective
A psychologist administers a self-report test to a female college student two statements better describes her test is a projective .
What are 3 things psychologist do?Psychologists can help people learn to cope with stressful situations, overcome addictions, manage their chronic illnesses, and tests and assessments that can help diagnose a condition or tell more about the way a person thinks, feels, and behaves.
What is the main job of a psychologist?Duties and Responsibilities Observes patients in various situations; selects, administers, and interprets intelligence, personality, or other psychological tests to diagnose disorders and formulate plans of treatment, and provides consultation to other mental health professionals with regard to test results.
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