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The likely diagnosis of the woman whose EKG is diagnosed and reports that her pulse rate feels strong and at other times it feels weak is: (4) Second degree A-V block, Mobitz type II.
EKG or ECG stands for Electrocardiogram. It is the electrical signal recording of the heart beats in order to diagnose the heart conditions. For this, the electrodes are placed on to the chest and the waves generated by heart beat are recorded on the computer system.
A-V block is also called the heart block. It is a condition where the electrical signals regulating the heart beat are partially or completely blocked. The result of it are unregulated slow heart beats, that may be skipped at times. This causes insufficient blood supply.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A 55-year-old woman had the following EKG recorded at her annual physical. She reported to her doctor that sometimes her pulse rate feels strong and at other times it feels weak. Standard limb lead II is shown. What is her likely diagnosis?
Atrial paroxysmal tachycardiaFirst degree A-V blockSecond degree A-V block, Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)Second degree A-V block, Mobitz type IIThird degree A-V blockTo know more about EKG, here
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Related Questions
a nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. of which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds to be?
Answers
The nurse would expect normal vesicular breath sounds to be soft, low-pitched, and blowing in quality. These sounds are usually heard over the lung fields and are created by air moving through the air spaces in the lungs.
What is the normal breath count?The normal breath count per minute for an adult at rest is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. This number can vary depending on age, physical activity level, and overall health.
What does it mean when the breath count increases suddenly?A sudden change in breath count outside the normal range could indicate a respiratory problem and warrant medical attention. It's important to monitor breathing and keep track of any changes, as this can provide valuable information to healthcare professionals.
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a nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. the nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?
Answers
Because bowel noises tend to be high pitched, just use diaphragm end piece in the right lower quadrant.
If the nurse wants to listen for bowel sounds just at ileocecal valve, where ought to the stethoscope be placed?The right lower abdomen quadrant, where the ileocecal valve is located, is where the nurse starts to auscultate because stool noises are always heard there ordinarily. The nurse presses the diaphragmatic endpiece of a stethoscope lightly on the skin.
Which method is most effective for evaluating bowel sounds while inspecting this patient's abdomen?The midsection of the intestinal wall is located in the belly to the side of the umbilicus, so listen for bowel noises there.Listen to each of the four quadrants after that.Listen for small bowel obstruction to the right of a umbilicus when auscultating patient abdomen, and then listen for other abdominal sounds.
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which gross motor skills would the nurse expect children 3 to 5 years of age to develop? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
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The gross motor skills that the nurse would expect children 3 to 5 years of age to develop are:
2 Skipping
3 Jumping rope
4 Catching a ball
5 Hopping on one foot
What are the motor skills that a nurse expect of children 3 to 5 years of age to develop?The nurse would expect children 3 to 5 years of age to develop the following gross motor skills:
Running
Hopping
Jumping
Climbing stairs
Throwing and catching a ball
Kicking a ball
Balancing on one foot
Pedaling a tricycle
Galloping
It is worthy of note that every child develops at their own pace and some may develop these skills earlier or later than others. It's important for the nurse to assess each child individually and support their gross motor development.
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The complete question goes thus:
which gross motor skills would the nurse expect children 3 to 5 years of age to develop? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
1 Skating
2 Skipping
3 Jumping rope
4 Catching a ball
5 Hopping on one foot
a client asks the nurse what the atorvastatin (lipitor) prescribed for the client will do. what is an expected outcome for this client?
Answers
The expected outcome that the nurse describe will be Decrease in serum cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL) levels.
Atorvastatin is a statin drug used to prevent cardiovascular disease and treat abnormal cholesterol levels in those who are at high risk. Statins are a first-line medication for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. It is administered orally.
Atorvastatin is used in conjunction with a healthy diet to reduce blood cholesterol and triglyceride (fat) levels. This medication may help avoid medical issues caused by fats obstructing blood arteries (for example, chest discomfort, heart attack, or stroke). Doctors may sometimes advise taking it in the evening. This is due to the fact that your body produces the highest cholesterol during night. In this pharmacological class, atorvastatin is the most prevalent cause of clinically severe liver damage.
The complete question is:
The patient asks the nurse what atorvastatin (Lipitor), newly prescribed, will do. What expected outcome will the nurse describe?
A) Decrease in serum cholesterol onlyB) Decrease in serum cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL) levelsC) Decrease in sitosterol and serum cholesterolD) Decrease in campesterol and LDL levelsTo learn more about Atorvastatin, here
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chromium and boron supplements would be an example of which major classification of nutritional supplement?
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Supplements containing boron and chromium dietary supplements primarily fall within the mineral category.
What exactly are dietary supplements?Something ingested as part of a diet. An oral nutritional supplement typically has one or more dietary constituents. Dietary components can include anything from vitamins and minerals to herbs, enzymes, amino acids, and even herbs.
Which is an illustration of a dietary supplement?Typical supplements consist of: Vitamins (such as multivitamins or specific vitamins like vitamin D and biotin) (such as multivitamins or individual vitamins like vitamin D and biotin). Minerals (such as calcium, magnesium, and iron) (such as calcium, magnesium, and iron). herbal plants or plants (such as echinacea and ginger). But there are certain hazards associated with using dietary supplements, particularly for those who are receiving cancer therapy.
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Offline, create a complete pictogram that represents:
1. The various sources of energy.
2. The percentage of global consumption for each as shown in the video.
3. What each source is used for (electricity, transportation, heat).
Use the illustration from the video as a guide.
Upload your completed pictogram.
Answers
I cannot create a pictogram for you, but, I can suggest some tips on how to create such a pictogram:
Research and gather images or icons that represent each source of energy, such as a wind turbine for wind energy, a solar panel for solar energy, etc.Use a pie chart to represent the percentage of global consumption for each source of energy. Label each slice of the pie chart with the corresponding percentage.Use arrows or labels to indicate what each source of energy is used for (electricity, transportation, heat).Once you have created the pictogram, you can scan or take a photo of it and upload it to your desired platform.What is a Pictogram?A pictogram, also known as a pictogramme, pictograph, or just "picto," as well as an icon in computer usage, is a graphic symbol that communicates its meaning by having a visual likeness to a real-world object.
The pictogram would be immensely valuable as you seek to understand the various sources of energy and other prompts listed above.
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a newly arrived immigrant attends the prenatal clinic at 30 weeks' gestation for the first time. which immunizations would the nurse recommend? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Answers
Immunizations that will be recommended by the nurse for these immigrants are Diphtheria and Hepatitis B.
When it comes to testing pregnant women, timing is also important. The CDC recommends getting fit in the third trimester between weeks 27 and 36, to provide the baby with the most antibody protection before birth.
Diphtheria vaccine helps prevent diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus in pregnant women and fetuses. Hepatitis B is given to an immigrant because it can prevent various dangerous diseases that lurk in a new environment.
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While explaining to a group of nursing students what the function of the first mucosal
layer of the lower two thirds of the esophagus, the pathophysiology instructor mentions
which of the following functions? Select all that apply.
A) Secretion of mucus to lubricate and protect the inner surface of the alimentary
canal
B) Smooth muscle cells that facilitate movement of contents of the GI tract
C) Holding the organs in place and storage of fats
D) Barrier to prevent the entry of pathogenic organisms
E) A cushioning to protect against injury from sports or car accidents
Answers
holding your organs in position and fat storage while describing the purpose of the initial mucosal to a gathering of student nurses.
What role does the bottom three quarters of the esophagus' first mucosal layer play?The esophageal mucosa is crucial in defending the muscle layer underneath. The lower esophagus uses it as its initial line of defense against stomach acid. Luminal acids clearance and cell resistance are the main mucosal defenses of the esophageal squamous mucosa against acid.
The end of the esophagus sphincter is made up of what?The intrinsic sphincter, which is made up of the oblique sling muscle and the semicircular clasp muscles, makes up the lower esophageal sphincter, or LES, in its anatomical form.
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what is the relationship between efficacy and potency of a drug? a. potency is the strongest, non-harmful effect produced by a drug. b. potency is the minimum dose of a drug required for efficacy. c. efficacy is the amount of a drug needed to produce optimal results. d. efficacy is the range of impacts produced by the lowest potency.
Answers
The relationship between efficacy and potency of a drug is option a. potency is the strongest, non-harmful effect produced by a drug.
Potency is a pharmacological term used to describe the amount of a substance that is needed to create an effect of a specific strength. A substance with high potency causes a specific reaction at low concentrations, whereas a substance with low potency causes the same reaction only at higher concentrations.
A medicine that is effective in clinical trials is frequently ineffective when used as directed. For instance, a medicine may be highly effective at lowering blood pressure but be less beneficial overall because of all the negative effects it has. The phrase "potency" describes a drug's activity in terms of the concentration or quantity of the medication needed to achieve a specific effect, whereas the term " efficacy" assesses a medicine's therapeutic efficacy in humans.
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a client has recently been diagnosed with non-hodgkin lymphoma and is interested in knowing how other adults in her age group responded to regular chemotherapy versus chemotherapy combined with alternative therapy and whether they saw an improvement in their life span. which type of resource will best assist the nurse in answering this client's question?
Answers
The best assist for the nurse in answering this client's question regarding chemotherapy is option A) A systematic review or meta-analysis or randomized clinical trials (RCT).
To compare two (or more) treatments, a treatment to a control or comparison group, an RCT is carried out. This is not something that preliminary research should undertake because they will almost always be dreadfully underpowered and will likely provide false results.
A form of cancer known as non-lymphoma Hodgkin's develops in the lymphatic system, which is a component of the body's immune system that fights infection. White blood cells called lymphocytes can develop tumours (growths) throughout the body when non-lymphoma Hodgkin's is present. When the body overproduces aberrant lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, Non-lymphoma Hodgkin's develops.
The question is incomplete, find the complete question here
A client has recently been diagnosed with non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is interested in knowing how other adults in her age bracket responded to regular chemotherapy versus chemotherapy combined with alternative therapy and whether they saw an improvement in their life span. Which of the following will best assist the nurse in answering this client's question?
A) A systematic review or meta-analysis or randomized clinical trials (RCT)
B) Qualitative studies
C) Expert opinion
D)Clinical opinion
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the nurse is preparing to discharge a patient whose calcium level was low but is now just barely within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dl [2.25 to 2.63 mmol/l]). which statement by the patient indicates the need for additional teaching?
Answers
The correct option is A, that is, the use of dairy products, seafood, almonds, broccoli, and spinach, all of which are excellent sources of dietary calcium, should be recommended for clients with low calcium levels. The other three choices show that calcium treatment is correctly understood.
Calcium is a mineral that is most frequently linked to strong bones and teeth, but it also plays a critical role in blood clotting, assisting with muscular contraction, and maintaining regular heartbeats and nerve activity. The body stores around 99% of its calcium in the bones, with the remaining 1% being present in blood, muscle, and other tissues. The body tries to maintain a consistent level of calcium in the blood and tissues in order to carry out these essential everyday processes. The bones will release calcium into the circulation when blood calcium levels get dangerously low, according to parathyroid hormone.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client whose calcium level was low but is now just barely within the normal range (9 to 10.5 mg/dL [2.25 to 2.63 mmol/L]). Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
A. "I will avoid dairy products, broccoli, and spinach when I eat."
B. "I will take my calcium citrate pill every morning before breakfast."
C. "I will make sure to take my vitamin D with my calcium each day."
D. "I will call my doctor if I experience muscle twitching or seizures."
a 45-year-old client has presented to the emergency department with a report of nausea and vomiting and severe pain just under the right rib cage. which response(s) should the nurse prioritize? select all that apply.
Answers
Responses that should be prioritized by the nurse with severe pain just below the right rib:
“Can you tell me more about the nausea and vomiting?""I am going to apply some pressure to your abdomen to see exactly where the pain is.""How long have your eyes had the yellow tint?"Pain under the ribs on the right can indeed be part of the symptoms of cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder). Often, cholecystitis will not only cause pain, but also nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, fever, and various other symptoms. This cholecystitis can appear not only because of gallstones but can also be due to tumors, scar tissue or twisting of the bile ducts, infections, to blood clotting disorders.
One of the causes of yellow eyes is obstruction of the flow of Bilirubin due to bile duct stones. So, the nurse can ask the client about this.
If severe nausea, vomiting, and pain under the right ribs, the client has symptoms of cholecystitis.
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when preparing a client who is scheduled for a pulmonary function test (pft) because of possible adult-onset asthma, which action would the nurse take ?
Answers
The nurse would take several actions to prepare the client for a Pulmonary Function Test (PFT).
First, the nurse would assess the client current respiratory status, including oxygen achromatism position, respiratory rate and breath sounds. The nurse would explain the procedure to the customer, addressing any questions or enterprises. The nurse would also ask the customer to refrain from eating, drinking and smoking for two hours.
prior to the test. The nurse would also check for any specifics that the client is taking, as some may affect the results of the test. Incipiently, the nurse would insure that the client is wearing comfortable apparel and has voided his or her bladder previous to the test.
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a nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain. which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management? group of answer choices
Answers
The official medical escort is reliable and liable to woo successfully selling with the patient's hassle via evaluation, intercession, and stoic hype. also, non-pharmacological interventions to stem the patient's eminent bother. The correct option(B).
Persistent torment for the most part doesn't disappear, however, you can oversee it with a blend of methodologies that work for you. Current persistent torment medicines can diminish an individual's aggravation score by around 30%.
Torment is an indication that something has occurred, that something is off-base. Intense torment happens rapidly and disappears when there is no reason, however, persistent agony endures longer than a half year and can proceed when the injury or sickness has been dealt with.
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Q-A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic pain. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of pain management?
a."This patient says the pain is a 5 but is not acting like it. I am not going to give any pain medication."
b."I need to reassess the patient's pain for 1 hour of oral pain medication."
c. "It wasn't time for the patient's medication, so when it was requested, I gave a placebo."
d. "The patient is sleeping, so I pushed the PCA button."
the nurse is caring for a client who has been on complete bed rest for the past week. as the nurse assists the client to sit in the chair, the client becomes dizzy when the legs are dangled over the side of the bed. which action by the nurse is the priority?
Answers
When the oxygen saturation of a client with pneumonia is at 89% to 90% while using a nonrebreather mask, the nurse would anticipate that the healthcare provider (HCP) would order additional oxygen therapy to improve the client's oxygenation.
One possible collaborative action that the nurse could anticipate would be an order to increase the oxygen flow rate on the nonrebreather mask, up to the maximum flow rate of 15 L/min. If this does not adequately improve the client's oxygen saturation, the HCP may order additional oxygen therapy, such as a high-flow nasal cannula or mechanical ventilation.
In addition to oxygen therapy, the nurse would also anticipate other collaborative interventions, such as administering antibiotics as prescribed to treat pneumonia and providing supportive care to help the client breathe more comfortably. The nurse would also continue to monitor the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation levels and communicate any changes or concerns to the healthcare team.
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which action would the nurse take first when a client with acute bronchitis and emphysema reports feeling anxious and short of breath?
Answers
According to the given statement The nurse take first Provide oxygen at 2 L per minute.
What is acute bronchitis caused by?The microorganisms that cause illness and the flu as well as abrupt onset are typically viruses (influenza). Antibiotics usually fail to cure bronchitis because viruses are not destroyed by them. The most common prevalence of acute bronchitis is cigarette smoking.
Is severe acute bronchitis a disease?Acute bronchitis is often not harmful and has no adverse effects. The symptoms frequently disappear on their own, when lungs returns to normal. Acute pneumonia is often not treated with antibiotics. This is so since the majority of diseases are brought on by viruses.
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the pregnant client is 5 ft 3 in (160 cm) tall and weighs 130 1b (57 kg) at the beginning of her pregnancy. which weight would be recommended for her to reach at the end of the pregnancy?
Answers
At the end of the pregnancy, it would be advised that she weigh 150 LB.
Which Fundal height would a nurse anticipate while evaluating a patient at 16 weeks of pregnancy?The fundus is positioned in the middle of the symphysis pubis and umbilicus at 16 weeks of gestation. The fundus is palpable right below the ensiform cartilage at 36 weeks gestation.
Which position should the nurse place the client in before preparing them for a non-stress test?You'll recline on a chair as you undergo the non-stress test. Throughout the examination, your blood pressure will be measured on a regular basis. A sensor that measures the fetal heart rate will be wrapped around your abdomen by a member of your medical team or by your doctor.
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an asymptomatic client questions the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Answers
The nurse should explain to the asymptomatic client that mitral regurgitation is a condition in which the heart's mitral valve does not close tightly therefore the correct option is A.
An asymptomatic client questions as the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most applicable response by the nurse allowing some of the blood to flow backward in the heart. The nurse should also explain that while the customer may not be passing any symptoms,
it's important to limit physical exertion and avoid any heavy lifting or emphatic exercise. The nurse should emphasize that if physical exercise is necessary, the client should consult with his/ her doctor and follow the doctor's advice.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
an asymptomatic client questions the nurse about mitral regurgitation and inquires about continuing exercises. which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
a heart's mitral valve does not close tightly.
b heart's mitral valve close tightly.
c None
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the nurse is caring for a child who has suffered a head injury and has had an icp monitor placed. which prescription by the health care provider would the nurse question?
Answers
Initiate an IV of 0.9% NS to run at 250 ml/hr prescription by the health care provider the nurse would question.
What is health care provider?An organisation or individual certified to offer medical diagnosis and treatment services, such as medication, surgery, and medical gadgets, is known as a health care provider.
Fluids given intravenously quickly may raise ICP. A quick infusion would be 250 ml/hr of normal saline administered intravenously.
Dexamethasone and other corticosteroids can lessen cerebral edoema. Mannitol is an example of an osmotic diuretic that can lower pressure.
Indwelling urinary catheters are frequently placed due to the administration of the osmotic diuretic.
Thus, start a 0.9% NS IV that would drip at a rate of 250 ml/hour per the doctor's order, the nurse would inquire.
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a nurse is helping parents who have a child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. which strategy will the nurse share with the parents to reduce stress regarding homework assignments
Answers
A nurse is offering assistance to parents of kids with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder. The nurse advises the parents to use time management techniques in order to lessen the stress brought around by their children's academics.
What does a nurse actually do?The main responsibility of a nurse is to take care of patients by attending to their physical requirements, treating medical issues, and avoiding sickness. To assist in making therapeutic decisions, nurses must monitor the patient and note any pertinent information.
What quality in a nurse makes her stand out?To interact alongside patients and their loved ones or support them through tough times, a nurse requires empathy.
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a nurse on the unit fails to help a colleague ambulate a client even though there is time to do so. which are appropriate responses by the nurse who required assistance with the client? select all that apply.
Answers
The appropriate responses by the nurse who required assistance with the client are:
a. "We all have to work together as a team to provide quality care for our clients."c. "This client is in need of our assistance, and everyone who is free should come together for improved client outcomes."d. "Please come and help and work together with me as a team."The nurse who sought assistance with a client should address rather than disregard (as demonstrated in the remark, "Never mind, I'll find someone else to help") the other nurse's failure to collaborate as a team with the first nurse. The nurse cannot advise the other nurse to go home, nor would this be a suitable answer in any scenario. The other options are all suitable replies that address the nurse's worry about requiring assistance.
The complete question is:
A nurse on the unit fails to help a colleague ambulate a client even though there is time to do so. Which are appropriate responses by the nurse who required assistance with the client? Select all that apply.
a. "We all have to work together as a team to provide quality care for our clients."b. "Never mind, I will get someone else to help."c. "This client is in need of our assistance, and everyone who is free should come together for improved client outcomes."d. "Please come and help and work together with me as a team."e. "If you don't assist me with client care, you may as well go home."To learn more about nursing assistance, here
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the nurse includes which parameters in ongoing focused assessment of patients receiving positive inotropic medication for heart failure? select all that apply. monitor serum electrolytes check apical pulse auscultate lung sounds obtain daily weights review red blood cell count
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For a patient receiving a positive inotropic drug the nursing assessments that should be performed are to obtain daily weights, check apical pulse, ausculatate lung sounds, and monitor serum electrolytes.
It is important for the nurse to perform these assessments in order to monitor the patient's response to the positive inotropic medication and detect any potential adverse effects. Obtaining daily weights can help monitor for fluid accumulation, checking the apical pulse can help assess for changes in heart rate and rhythm, auscultating lung sounds can help detect any changes in respiratory status, reviewing the red blood cell count can help monitor for anemia, and monitoring serum electrolytes can help ensure that levels remain within normal range.
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The given question is incorrect. The correct question is as follows:
For a patient receiving a positive inotropic drug, which nursing assessments should be performed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Obtain daily weights.
B. Check apical pulse.
C. Auscultate lung sounds.
D. Review red blood cell count.
E. Monitor serum electrolytes.
what would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcal daily for one month? a. 2 pounds b. 3 pounds c. 4 pounds d. 6 pounds
Answers
The approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcal daily for one month is option c. 4 pounds.
Diet, inactivity, environmental variables, and genetics are a few of these. Dates, prunes, apricots, figs, sultanas, currants, and raisins are just a few examples of dried fruits that have more calories than their fresh counterparts, making them excellent choices for a healthy weight gain.
Deficiencies in vitamins and minerals are the biggest risks of a 500 kcal daily diet. In actuality, if they consume less than 1200 calories per day, the majority of people cannot achieve their vitamin and mineral needs. For obese individuals or as a preventative precaution before surgery, a 500-calorie diet may be helpful in the very short term.
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which characteristics does the nurse observe in a client with dementia pugilistica? select all that apply.
Answers
Dementia pugilistica is a form of dementia caused by repeated head trauma, and is characterized by memory loss, cognitive impairment, personality changes, speech and language impairment, motor impairment, behavioral changes, and psychiatric symptoms.
What is dementia pugilistica?Dementia pugilistica is a kind of dementia induced by recurrent head trauma, such as boxers endure. It is classified as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). The following are some of the characteristics of dementia pugilistica:
1. Memory Loss: The most prevalent symptoms of dementia pugilistica are memory loss and cognitive impairment. The individual may have difficulties recalling recent occurrences as well as recalling old events.
2. Personality Changes: Personality changes are typical in dementia pugilistica. Individuals may become angry, rash, or irritated.
3. Speech and Language Impairment: Individuals suffering with dementia pugilistica may struggle to understand and use language.
4. Motor Impairment: Another typical sign of dementia pugilistica is motor impairment. People may struggle with coordination, balance, and motor abilities.
5. Behavioral Changes: Dementia pugilistica is often characterized by behavioral abnormalities. Individuals may grow indifferent and disinterested in formerly appreciated hobbies. They may also acquire obsessive tendencies, such as repetitive actions or statements.
6. Psychological Symptoms: Dementia pugilistica patients may develop mental symptoms such as despair, anxiety, and paranoia.
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The complete question is: What characteristics does the nurse observe in a client with dementia pugilistica?
a psychiatric-mental health nurse has developed a therapeutic relationship with a client. which action would alert the nurse to the possibilty that the relationship may be moving outside professional boundaries? select all that apply.
Answers
Some of the actions that increase the possibility that the nurse relationship might be moving outside the professional relation with the client are, client provides baked lunch to the nurse, nurse telling others that she is the only one to understand the client, and the nurse is spending more time with the client.
Actions that would make the nurse aware that the relationship might be straying outside of what is appropriate for a professional setting are:
-The patient provides the nurse with a baked good for lunch.
-Compared to the other members of the group, the nurse is spending more time with the client.
-The nurse claims to be the only person who truly comprehends this client, she says to a friend.
A therapeutic relationship is one that supports the patient by fostering mutual trust and respect, encouraging faith and hope, being sensitive to oneself and others, and utilising the knowledge and skills of the care provider to meet the patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual needs.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -
a psychiatric-mental health nurse has developed a therapeutic relationship with a client. which action would alert the nurse to the possibilty that the relationship may be moving outside professional boundaries? select all that apply.
A. The client brings the nurse a baked item for their lunch.
B. The nurse is spending more time with the client than the others in the group.
C. The nurse tells a friend that the nurse is the only one who truly understands this client.
D. The nurse has a judgmental attitude towards the patient
E. The nurse doesn't care about the client's needs.
a client's cervix is fully dilated and effaced. the head of the fetus is at 2 station. which client action would the nurse encourage during contractions?
Answers
A client's cervix is fully dilated and effaced, the head of the fetus is at 2 station and the client action which the nurse would encourage during contractions is to push with her glottis open.
When the client pushes or bears down while the glottis is open, the second stage of labor's expulsive contractions will move along more quickly. The cervix's structure is crucial to preserving pregnancy because it keeps the growing child inside the womb and acts as a barrier to the ascent of bacteria from the vagina.
The client can't relax because the contractions are so strong; relaxation takes place in between contractions. Until the foetal head crowns (+4 station) and a controlled birth is wanted, the client shouldn't be advised to close her eyes, blow, or pant as this will inhibit pushing.
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four newborns are in the newborn nursery, none of whom are crying or in distress. which of the babies should the nurse report to the neonatologist?
Answers
Any baby who is 25 hour old and that has not voided yet is the one whom the nurse should report to the neontologist.
If the newborn does not cry and stress after 25 hours, the nurse should refer the baby to a neonatologist for immediate and better treatment.
Neonatology is a subspecialty of pediatrics that cares for newborns, especially those who are ill or premature. It is a hospital specialty most commonly found in neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
Newborn sobs and frustration are common symptoms after birth. No crying or stress indicates that the baby is very sick.
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what is the number of rails that need to be raised on the side of the bed that you are turning the patient towards?
Answers
On the side of the bed that you are turning the patient toward, there should be two rails lifted.
How should a patient be turned in bed?Put one hand on the patient's shoulder and the other on the patient's hip. As you gently draw the patient's shoulder toward you while standing with one foot in front of the other, shift your weight to your front foot (or knee, if you place your knee on the bed).
How do you get a patient out of bed and to the side?Pull the patient's head and shoulders toward you by sliding your hands and arms under them. Maintain a straight back and flexed hips and knees.
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a patient has an immune deficiency. while the nurse obtains the patient's history, which finding is typical
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While the nurse is gathering the patient's history, the patient has an immunological deficit. severe, persistent infection
Which historical finding is typical of someone who has a weakened immune system?Clinically, immune-deficient patients are typically identified by a history of recurrent infections. Which aspect of the immune system is weak can be determined by the type of infection.
What is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?KWY-erd IH-myoo-noh-deh FiH-shun-see Sin-drome The sickness brought on by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A higher risk of infections and various cancers, which usually only affect those with weakened immune systems, exists in people with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. also called AIDS.
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The complete question is: What findings are typical for a patient with an immune deficiency?
a conscious complains of difficulty breathing. he is coughing while pointing to his throat. what should you do?
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If a conscious person complains of difficulty breathing. he is coughing while pointing to his throat we first do check the airway, breathing and circulation.
In the case’s palpitation to make sure it's regular and take a look at the case's breathing rate, noting any labored breathing. I would use a stethoscope to hear to the case's lungs, looking for any abnormal sounds similar as gasping or crackles. I would also assess the case's skin color,
Noting any signs of cyanosis. However, I would also administer oxygen if available, If the case was having difficulty breathing. I would also take a careful history from the case to determine if he'd any disinclinations, asthma, COPD or other respiratory problems that could be causing the difficulty.
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