870 g of brass contains 40 percent zinic and the rest is copper.find the mass of zinic and copper in the alloy​

Answer

59.5

Step-by-step explanation:

This is what I think!

Step-by-step explanation:

d=(3/4)-(1/4)=(5/4)-(3/4)=(7/4)-(5/4)=1/2

then it is an arithmetic sequence

by using this equation :

a(n) = a1 +(n-1)d

and we have : a1=(1/4),  d=(1/2)

So:

Explicit formula: a(n) = (1/4) +(n-1)*(1/2)

hope this helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

d=(3/4)-(1/4)=(5/4)-(3/4)=(7/4)-(5/4)=1/2

then it is an arithmetic sequence

by using this equation :

a(n) = a1 +(n-1)d

and we have: a1=(1/4),  d=(1/2)

So:

Explicit formula: a(n) = (1/4) +(n-1)*(1/2)

Answer:

In each shelves there are 64/4 books I.e. 16.

Answer:

8x^2  +  2x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 8

Step-by-step explanation:

f(5) =1/4(2)^5

because x=5

f(5)=1/4(32)

because 2^5 is 2*2*2*2*2=32

f(5)=8

because 1/4*32 or 32/4 is 8

Hope this helped :) I haven't even learned f(x) in school yet haha. I'm in 8th grade, but I took extracurriculars for math and I'm on the math team. Ergo, I know it's right!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A.

Expression [tex](100)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex] = 10

Because 100 = [tex](10)^{2}[/tex] and [tex][(10)^2]^{\frac{1}{2}}=10^1=10[/tex]

[Since, [tex](a^{2})^{\frac{1}{2}}=a^{2\times \frac{1}{2}}=a^1[/tex]]

Part B.

When simplified, the answer is RATIONAL.

[Since, 10 can be written as [tex]\frac{10}{1}[/tex]]

Answer

5/3-i

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Dilation changes the size of the shape and is not a rigid motion.

Answer:

Dilation changes the size of the shape and is not a rigid motion.

explanation:

Hope it's answer you plz mark as Brainlist

Answer to Question 1:

<OGE (also m˚) = 19˚

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that all the angles in a triangle add up to 180˚.

Given:

<EGO = 71˚

<OEG = 90˚ (the angle forms a right angle because line EG is perpendicular to point O)

To Solve:

⇒ Since we know two angles, we should know the third; and they all add up to 180˚. This can be written as:

71˚ + 90˚ + <OGE = 180˚

⇒ Solve for <OGE by simplifying:

161˚ + <OGE = 180˚

⇒ Subtract 161˚ from both sides to get:

161˚ − 161˚ + <OGE = 180˚ − 161˚

⇒ Isolate <OGE:

<OGE = 19˚

Answer: <OGE (also m˚) = 19˚

Answer:

<OAC (also x˚) = 50˚

<OCB (also y˚) = 90˚

Step-by-step explanation:

–How to solve for <OCB (also y˚)

Just by looking, you can already tell that <OCB equals 90˚ because it forms a right angle.

Answer: <OCB (also y˚) = 90˚

–How to solve for <OAC (also x˚)

Given (and what we can already know):

<AOC = 40˚

<OCA = 90˚

⇒ Reason: Line AB is a straight line and a straight line equals 180˚. We already know on side of the line because <OCB is 90˚, and so the other side, <OCA, should also be 90˚, since the both sides that make up the straight line equal 180˚ (90˚ + 90˚ = 180˚). You can also tell that <OCA forms a right angle in the triangle because line AB is perpendicular to point O, and right angles are 90˚.

To Solve:

⇒ Since we know two angles in the triangle, we should know the third; and they all add up to 180˚. This can be written as:

40˚ + 90˚ + <OAC = 180˚

⇒ Solve for <OAC by simplifying:

130˚ + <OAC = 180˚

⇒ Subtract 130˚ from both sides to get:

130˚ − 130˚ + <OAC = 180˚ − 130˚

⇒ Isolate <OAC:

<OAC = 50˚

Answer: <OAC (also x˚) = 50˚

I hope you understand and that this helps with your question! :)

Answer:

Where's the graph kid sir?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The y-intercept on a sloped line is where the line crosses the y-axis. Taking a look at your graph, Find a point where the line crosses the y-axis.

Answer:

both the second and third one

Answer:

C.) 4 sqrt2

Step-by-step explanation:

ON=MN

therefore you can use pythagereum theorum here in a right triangle

as the hypotnuese is 8 you know that ON and MN is equal to the sqrt of 32 each. As A^2+ B^2=C^2

C=8 so C^2= 64 therefore,

A^2+ B^2=64 therefore,

A^2= 32 and B^2=32

you take the sqrt of 32 you get 4sqrt2

Answer:

-2 + 6!

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the last two are negatives back to back, you change them to positive to make the problem easier! Anytime the last two signs are back to back negatives, you can do that, but never change the first sign!

I hope this helps!!

Answer: THE PINK ONE (-2+6)

Step-by-step explanation:  WE DID THIS IN MATH SO I KNOW. IT'S THE PINK ONE! (-2+6)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that TR is 1/3 the length of MR

MR = 54

TR = 1/3 *MR

TR = 1/3 * 54

TR = 18

Understanding:

This can be easily solved by using the distance formula which is

[tex]d=\sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1})^{2}+(y_{2}-y_{1})^{2} }\\[/tex]

[tex]d:[/tex] distance

[tex](x_{1},y_{1}):[/tex] coordinates of the first point, in our case it is [tex](1,-5)[/tex]

[tex](x_{2},y_{2}):[/tex] coordinates of the second point, [tex](4,-1)[/tex]

Solution:

[tex]d=\sqrt{[(4)-(1)]^{2}+[(-1)-(-5)]^2}\\=\sqrt{(3)^2+(4)^2}\\= \sqrt{9+16} \\=\sqrt{25}\\= 5[/tex]

The distance between the two points is 5.

The two variables in this problem are dollars and hours

Melissa charges $1.25 per hour to pet-sit.

The coordinates in a graph indicate the location of a point with respect to the x-axis and y-axis.

The coordinates in a graph show the relationship between the information plotted on the given x-axis and y-axis.

We have,

The table and the given points on the coordinate plane provide information about the relationship between the number of hours of

pet-sitting (x) and the amount of money earned (y) by Melissa, who charges a fixed rate of $1.25 per hour for pet-sitting.

The equation of the line passing through the points (1, 1.25) and (4, 5) can be found by using the slope-intercept form:

y - y_1 = m (x - x_1),

where m is the slope and (x_1, y_1) is a point on the line.

Using the two given points, we have:

m = (y_2 - y_1)/(x_2 - x_1)

= (5 - 1.25)/(4 - 1)

= 1.25

y - 1.25 = 1.25 (x - 1)

y = 1.25x - 0.75

This means that for each additional hour of pet-sitting, Melissa earns an additional $1.25.

Therefore,

The two variables in this problem are dollars and hours

Melissa charges $1.25 per hour to pet-sit.

Learn more about coordinates here:

https://brainly.com/question/13118993

#SPJ3

Answer:

The two variables are dollars and hours. The correct equation is y = 1.25x. Melissa charges $1.25 an hour to pet-sit.    or 1,3,5

Answer:

m = n = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to find the missing side lengths

For a 45-45 triangle, the lengths have a side ratio of;

1:1: √2

We should understand that the triangle is isosceles ( opposite and adjacent are equal)

So n = m

So what we just need to do here is divide 20 √2 by √2

Mathematically, that would be;

20 √2/√2 = 20

Answer:

- 2 feets

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that sea star can be found at an ocean depth of 2 feets ;

An ocean depth of 2 feets can be represented as :

Sea level - depth = 0 - 2 = - 2 feets

Hence, it can be concluded that sea star lives in the ocean

Answer:

is this the whole question? is there a second part to it?

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple interest = PRT/100

S I = $10000 x 2 x 2

_____________

100

SI = $400

Answer:

$ 10,400

Step-by-step explanation:

Interest = P( 1 + rt)

10000 { 1 + ( 0.02 x 2 )

= 10000 * 1.04

= 10, 400

the answer to the question 2. Suppose you buy a ticket for $6 out of a lottery of 1000 tickets where the prize for the one winning is to be $800. How much money do you take home (after paying for it)? is  -$5.20

Answer: 50 miles per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

Find out the length of the normal route.

Distance = Speed * time

= 48 * 40/60

= 32 miles

The detour is 8 miles longer so the length is;

= 32 + 8

= 40 miles

What speed should he travel at to make it in 48 minutes. Remember speed is in miles per hours.

Speed = Distance/ time

= 40 / (48/60)

= 50 miles per hour

Answer:

50 miles per hour :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Distance = Speed * time = 48 * 40/60 = 32 miles

Detour is 8 miles longer so = 32 + 8 = 40 miles

In 48 minutes. Remember speed is in miles per hours.

Speed = Distance/ time

50MPH= 50 miles per hour

I hope that helps

Answer: 200

Work: If the equation is 2x = 400, you just divide 2 on both sides, meaning the answer is x = 200

Answer:

DE ≅ XY and XY ≅ YZ, then DE ≅ YZ

Thus, this statement is illustrated or validated by the 'Transitive Property of Segment Congruence'.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that if two segments are congruent to the third segment, then they will be congruent to each other. This is called Transitive Property of Segment Congruence.

For example, Let suppose

LM ≅ AB and AB ≅ BC, then LM ≅ BC

30  ≅ 30 and  30  ≅ 30, then 30  ≅ 30

Thus, this validates the 'Transitive Property of Segment Congruence'.

Now Given

DE ≅ XY and XY ≅ YZ, then DE ≅ YZ

Thus, according to the above discussion, this statement is illustrated or validated by the 'Transitive Property of Segment Congruence'.

Answer: The answer is 1 and 2/3

Hope this helps you bye

Answer:

no solution

Step-by-step explanation:

x cancel out each other

Answer:

no solution

Step-by-step explanation: